For \(a\in(0,1)\text{,}\) let
\begin{equation*}
I(a)=\int_a^1 x^p\ln(x)\,dx.
\end{equation*}
Using integration by parts with \(u=\ln(x)\) and \(dv=x^p\,dx\text{,}\) for \(p\neq -1\) we get
\begin{align*}
I(a)
&=
\left.\frac{x^{p+1}}{p+1}\ln(x)\right|_a^1
-\frac{1}{p+1}\int_a^1 x^p\,dx\\
&=
-\frac{a^{p+1}\ln(a)}{p+1}
-\frac{1-a^{p+1}}{(p+1)^2}.
\end{align*}
If \(p\gt -1\text{,}\) then \(a^{p+1}\to 0\) and \(a^{p+1}\ln(a)\to 0\) as \(a\to 0^+\text{.}\) Hence
\begin{equation*}
\int_0^1 x^p\ln(x)\,dx
=\lim_{a\to 0^+} I(a)
=-\frac{1}{(p+1)^2}.
\end{equation*}
If \(p\lt -1\text{,}\) then \(a^{p+1}\to\infty\text{,}\) so the expression above tends to \(-\infty\text{;}\) thus the integral diverges. For \(p=-1\text{,}\) \(\int_a^1 \frac{\ln(x)}{x}\,dx=-\frac{1}{2}(\ln(a))^2\to-\infty\text{,}\) so the original integral diverges (to \(-\infty\)).
Therefore, the improper integral converges exactly when \(p\gt -1\text{,}\) and in that case
\begin{equation*}
\int_0^1 x^p\ln(x)\,dx=-\frac{1}{(p+1)^2}.
\end{equation*}