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Section 5.2 Convergence Tests for Sequences

The following statement is intuitively clear. However, its validity relies on the completeness of real numbers. It allows ones to argue that a sequence is convergent without knowing its limit.
As an application of the monotonic convergence theorem, we show that:

Example 5.17.

\(\displaystyle \lim_{n\to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n}\right)^n\) exists.
By Theorem 5.16, it suffices to argue that \(a_n:=(1+1/n)^n\) form a bounded increasing sequence.
It follows from the Binomial Theorem that
\begin{equation*} a_n = \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}\frac{1}{n^k}. \end{equation*}
Since for all \(k \ge 1\text{,}\)
\begin{equation*} \ds \binom{n}{k}\frac{1}{n^k} = \frac{n(n-1)\cdots (n-k+1)}{k!}\frac{1}{n^k} \lt \frac{1}{k!} \le \frac{1}{2^{k-1}}, \end{equation*}
and so \(\ds a_n \le 1 + \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{2^{k-1}} = 1 + 2 = 3.\) It remains to show that \((a_n)\) is increasing.
For each \(0 \le k \le n\text{,}\)
\begin{equation*} \binom{n+1}{k}\frac{1}{(n+1)^k} = \frac{1}{k!}\prod_{i=0}^k \left(1 - \frac{i}{n+1}\right) \ge \frac{1}{k!}\prod_{i=0}^k \left(1 - \frac{i}{n}\right) = \binom{n}{k}\frac{1}{n^k}. \end{equation*}
So,
\begin{equation*} a_n = \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}\frac{1}{n^k} \le \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n+1}{k}\frac{1}{(n+1)^k} \lt \sum_{k=0}^{n+1} \binom{n+1}{k}\frac{1}{(n+1)^k} = a_{n+1}. \end{equation*}
This completes the proof.
The limit of \((1+1/n)^n\) can be taken as the definition of \(e\text{,}\) the base of the natural logarithm.
The following proposition is another application of the monotonic convergence theorem.

Proof.

Suppose \(0 \lt c \lt 1\text{.}\) Then
\begin{equation*} c \gt c^2 \gt c^3 \gt \cdots \end{equation*}
is a decreasing sequence and is bounded below by \(0\text{.}\) Thus, the sequence \((c^n)\) is convergent by the monotonic convergence theorem 5.16. Let \(L\) be its limit.
Now consider the sequence
\begin{equation*} c^2 , c^3 , c^4, \ldots \end{equation*}
Since it is just \((c^n)\) with its first term dropped so it also converges to \(L\text{.}\) However, this sequence is also \(c(c^n) =(c^{n+1})\) so it converges to \(cL\text{.}\) So by the uniqueness of limits, \(cL = c\text{.}\) But \(c \neq 0\text{,}\) so \(L\) must be \(0\text{.}\)
If \(c \gt 1\text{,}\) say \(c = 1+a\) for some \(a \gt 0\text{.}\)
\begin{equation*} c^n = (1+a)^n = 1+ na + \text{positive terms} \gt 1+na \to \infty \end{equation*}
as \(n \to \infty\text{.}\)
Let \((x_n)\) and \((y_n)\) be two sequences of positive real numbers. We write \((x_n) \ll (y_n)\) if the sequence of ratios \((x_n/y_n)\) is null. Intuitively, \((x_n) \ll (y_n)\) means \(y_n\) is way bigger than \(x_n\) eventually.

Proof.

Since \(b \gt 1\text{,}\) \(\ds \frac{(n+1)^a}{b^{n+1}}\frac{b^n}{n^a} = \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^a \frac{1}{b} \to \frac{1}{b} \lt 1\text{,}\) so \(\ds \frac{n^a}{b^n} \to 0\) by the ratio test 5.19.
Also, \(\ds \frac{b^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}\frac{n!}{b^n} = \frac{b}{n+1} \to 0\text{,}\) thus \(\ds \frac{b^n}{n!} \to 0\) by the ratio test.
Since
\begin{equation*} 0 \le \frac{n!}{n^n} = \frac{1}{n}\frac{2}{n} \cdots \frac{n}{n} \lt \frac{1}{n}, \end{equation*}
So \(n!/n^n \to 0\) by the Squeeze Lemma 5.11.
There is useful a characterization continuity by convergence of sequence.
Now, let us give a few applications of this result.

Example 5.22.

For any \(\ve \gt 0\text{,}\) \(e^{\ve} \gt 1\text{.}\) So, according to Proposition 5.20 \(n \ll (e^{\ve})^n\text{.}\) Taking natural log on both sides yields \(\ln(n)/n \lt \ve\) for all \(n\) sufficiently large. Since \(\ve \gt 0\) is arbitrary, this shows that \(\ln(n)/n \to 0\text{.}\)

Example 5.23.

\(n^{1/n} \to 1\text{.}\) This follows immediately from \(\ln(n)/n \to 0\) (Example 5.22), Proposition 5.21 and continuity of \(e^x\) at \(0\text{.}\)
Another way of computing the limit is as follows: since \(1 \le n^{1/n}\text{,}\) it suffices to show that for any \(\varepsilon \gt 0, n^{1/n} \lt 1+\varepsilon\) eventually. But this follows immediate from Proposition 5.20 as \(n \ll (1+\varepsilon)^n\text{.}\)

Example 5.24.

Let us compute the limit of the sequence given by \(a_n = (e^{2n} + n)^{1/n}\text{.}\)
Note that \(a_n = e^2(1+n/e^{2n})^{1/n}\) so \(\lim a_n = e^2\) if \(b_n:=(1+n/e^{2n})^{1/n} \to 1\) or equivalently \(\ln b_n \to 0\text{.}\) Since \(n/e^{2n} \to 0\) Proposition 5.20, so it follows from the continuity of \(\ln x\text{,}\) \(\ln(1+n/e^{2n}) \to \ln(1) = 0\text{.}\) Therefore, so does \(\ln b_n = \frac{1}{n}\ln(1+n/e^{2n})\text{.}\)
Here is another way to compute the limit. Note that
\begin{equation*} e^{2} \lt a_n=e^2\left(1 +\frac{n}{e^{2n}}\right)^{1/n} \lt e^2(2^{1/n}) \end{equation*}
Since \(n \lt 2^n \lt e^{2n}\text{.}\) By Exercise 5.7.2 \(2^{1/n} \to 1\) and so \(a_n \to e^2\) by the Squeeze Lemma.
Here are two useful observations for computing limit of sequences:
  1. If \(\lim_{x\to \infty} f(x) = L\) then \(\lim_{n \to \infty} f(n) = L\text{.}\)
  2. \(\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0^+} f(1/x)\text{.}\)

Example 5.25.

\(\ds \lim_{x \to 0} \sin(x)/x = 1\text{,}\)\(\ds \lim_{x \to \infty} x\sin(1/x) = 1\text{.}\)\(n\sin(1/n) \to 1\text{.}\)

Example 5.26.

Consider the sequence whose \(n\)th term is given by \(a_n = n^2\left(1-\cos\left(\frac{c}{n}\right)\right)\) where \(c\) is a constant. Using a double-angle formula for cosine,
\begin{equation*} a_n = 2n^2\sin^2\left(\frac{c}{2n}\right) = \frac{c^2}{2}\left(\frac{2n}{c}\sin\left(\frac{c}{2n}\right)\right)^2, \end{equation*}
By Example 5.25, \(a_n \to c^2/2(1)^2 =c^2/2\text{.}\)

Example 5.27.

Let us find the limit of the sequence given by \(a_n = \sqrt{n^2+4n} - \sqrt{n^2}\text{.}\) Note that \(\sqrt{n^2+4n} \lt \sqrt{n^2+4n+4} = n+2\text{,}\) so \(a_n \lt n+2 - \sqrt{n^2} =2\text{.}\) Also
\begin{equation*} a_n(\sqrt{n^2+4n}+\sqrt{n^2}) = n^2 + 4n - n^2 = 4n. \end{equation*}
But
\begin{equation*} a_n(\sqrt{n^2+4n}+\sqrt{n^2}) \lt a_n(n+2 + n) = 2a_n(n+1). \end{equation*}
Thus,
\begin{equation*} \frac{4n}{2(n+1)}= \frac{2n}{n+1} \lt a_n. \end{equation*}
Therefore, \(a_n \to 2\) by the squeeze lemma.